1. Glutathione is a tripeptide of
a. Glutamic acid, glycine and cysteine
b. Glycine, cystine, serine
c. Glutamic acid, serine
d. Glutamic acid, arginine, lysine
2. In the practice of occlusal equilibration, which of the following is undertaken?
a. Anterior splint therapy Maxillary training
b. Maxillary training
c. osterior eccentric interferences are removed, resulting In less muscle stress
d. The production of an overlap of the anterior teeth
3. Branches of third part of maxillary artery are all
a. Sphenopalatine b. Middle meningeal
c. Greater palatine. d. Posterior superior alveolar
4. NBT is a test of
a. Phagocytic capacity b. Complement activity
c. Cellular immunity d. Humoral immunity.
5. Hematosis is dependent upon all except
a. Vessel wall b. Blood viscosity
b. Platelet d. Coagulation system
6. The most common complication following the
extraction of a tooth is
a. Alveolar osteitis b. Dental caries
c. Actinomycosis d. Alveolar abscess
7. Truss arm is
a. Reciprocal arm b. Retentive arm
c. Minor connector d. Major connector
8. An elderly subject, complains of facial muscle
weakness, difficulty in chewing and swallowing and
speech. There is a history of his father also having
had the same symptoms, he is probably suffering
a. Horner’s syndrome b. Bulbar palsy
c. Pseudobulbar palsy d. Orofacial dyskinesia
9. Anachoretic pulpitis is:
a. Transient pulpitis
b. Acute subtotal pulpitis
c. Bacterial infection of pulp
d. None of the above
10. Bordetella colonies appear as
a. Dew drop b. Mercury drop
c. Green d. None of the above
11. Early synostosis of sutures occurs in
a. Craniofacial dysostosi b. Marble bone disease
. c. Osteitis deformans d. Cherubism
12. In the treatment of oral lichen planus , one of the drug usually used is:
a. Streptomycin b. Amphoterecin B
c. tertracyline d. None of the above
13. Endospores are formed by
a. Clostridia b. Corynebacteria
c. Cyanobacteria d. Actinomyces
14. Among the following disease which is not associated with enlargement of jaw bones.
a. Paget’s disease of the bone
b. Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis
c. Ossifying fibroma
d. Central giant cell granuloma
15. Histopathologically, the first sign in pulp,l which show that irreversible pulpitis has set in is:
a. Inflammation in subodontogenic zone
c. Pulpal necrosis
d. Wheat sheaf appearance
16. Contraindications to bridges are
a. When space is of such length that additional load will impair tissue health around abutments.
b. When the space length requires a beam of a such Mension that embrasures will be greatly reduced and underlyin tissue overprotected
c. When previous prosthesis produced an unfavorable reaction in mucous membrane
d. All of the above
17. The racial isolate in dentiongenesis imperfecta is:
a. Type 1 b. Type 11 c. Type 111 d. Type IV
18. Which of the following is a mismatch
a. a.Haemochromatosis -disorder or iron metabolism
b. b.Haematemesis -vomiting of blood
c. Hemoglobinuria- the presence of RBC in urine
d. d.Haemostas - the arrest of bleeding
19. A 32 years old female has got oral cancer, the site where it is least likely to be situated is:
a. Lips b. Faucial pillars
c. Palate d. Ventral surface of tongue
20. Requirements (intangibles) of bridge construction include
a. Forces developed by the oral mechanism and by theresistance of the tooth and supporting tissue to them
b. Modifications of normal tooth form that reduce forces or increase resistance to them
c. Establishing normal tissue tone
d. All of the above
21. Basal cell carcinoma usually presents in
a. Upper third face b. Middle third face
c. Around chin d. Intraorally
22. Porcelain should be the material of choice
a. When a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
b. When the material is to be used without the support of metal
c. For other than for veneer purposes
d. Since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue
23. In anorexia nervosa one of the clinical entities
usually observed is:
a. Peripapical radiolucencies b. Abrasion of ant teeth
c. Erosion of teeth d. None of the above
sign is associated with Battle
a. Fracture zygoma
b. Fracture anterior cranial fossa
c. Fracture middle cranial fossa
d. Fracture naso ethmoid
25. Anemia occurs in renal failure due to
a. Decreased RBC production b. Blood loss
c. Increased RBC destruction d. All of the above.
26. Broken – down vital teeth may be used as an abutment for a full crown retainer
b. When iridioplatium wire in the form of a staple is used for reinforcement
c. After placing silver alloy filling
d. After placing oxyphosphate of zinc cement
27. The choice of method of tooth replacement should be considered in which of the following orders?
a. Fixed partial denture, complete denture, removable partial denture
b. Complete denture, fixed and removable partial denture
c. Removable partial, complete denture, fixed partial denture
d. Fixed partial denture, removable partial denture, complete denture
28. Among the following, in which patent GA is a contraindicated
a. An adult male over 65 yrs of age
b. Patient with acute respiratory infection
c. Child under 6 yrs of age
d. Patient with well compensated heart disease
29. A disadvantage of the direct method for constructing fixed partial dentures is
a. It cannot be readily used for all types of retainers
b. It requires more appointments than the indirect method
c. Marginal adaptation of retainers is difficult to obtain
d. All of the above
30. The feature which is not seen in Marfan’s syndrome
a. Arachnodactyly b. Dolichostenomelia
c. Buifid uvula d. Cleft palate
31. When one or more distal extension bases are involved, which of the following factor must be considered
a. Need for indirect retention
b. Clasp designs which minimize one forces applied to the abutment during function
c. Need for later rebasing
d. All of the above
32. Rigidity of the major connector may be made more certain by employing one or more of which of the
a. Use a cast rather than a wrought iron connector
b. Avoid a flat or ribbon – shaped connection
c. Increase the bulk of a major connector
d. All of the above
33. Which of the following are serious defects inherent in a radiographic method of determining the balance of the patient’s supporting bone?
a. Favorable appliance support may be found in patients having less dense bone as well as those having bone which is dense
b. There is a lack of agreement of whether dense or less Dense bone assumed extra work loads with least tendency to atrophic change
c. The apparent density of the alveolar bone varies in the same specimen when there is a change in the angulation of film or in exposure or processing
d. All of the above
34. An advantage of hydrocolloid materials for partial
a. It will remove from undercut areas without permanently deforming or tearing
b. It is a one – piece impression
c. No separating medium is required
d. All of the above
35. Denture stability is enhanced
a. By placing the occlusal areas distant from their support
b. By placing occlusal areas close to their support
c. When the patient does not chew vertically
d. By not centralizing the occlusal areas
36. A pathologic occlusion can be modified to a
therapeutic occlusion by correcting
c. Inter arch relationships
d. All of the above
37. Inflammatory reaction of basal mucosa is the result of
a. Removing dentures to allow tissue to rest
b. Absence of hyperemia
c. Endocrine disturbance
d. Good oral hygiene
38. Setting teeth with their long axes parallel to each other
a. Produces very natural looking teeth
b. Causes people to be happy with their dentures
c. Never causes patients to be irritated by the appearance of their dentures.
d. Produces an artificial appearance to the dentures.
39. The isolation of Streptococcus mutans nears 100%
a. At birth
b. When the deciduous incisors erupt
c. When the permanent incisors erupt
40. Which of the following are physical properties of
a. When purified they are waxy white substances
b. They are soluble in fat solvents with the exception of acetone
c. They are hygroscopic and mix well with water to form colloidal solution
d. They are all of the above
41. Characteristics of lipids include which of the following
a. Solubility in ether ( organic solvents)
b. Solubility in chloroform ( organic solvents)
c. Presence of esterified fatty acids
d. All of the above
42. A marked increase in tongue coating is usually associated with
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Late stage of scarlet fever
c. Median rhomboid glossitis
d. Disturbances in oral physiology
43. The developing mandible grows backward (not surrounding Meckel’s cartilage) to form
a. The incus and malleus b. The otic capsule
c. The hyoid cartilage d. The coronoid process
44. Gastric juice is composed of
a. 50% water and 50% organic substances
b. 70% water and 30% inorganic substances
c. 99.4% water and solids (organic substances and in organic constituents)
d. None of the above
45. Malposition of the mandible due to occlusal disharmony
a. May result in muscular imbalance, trismus, and pain
b. Caused drifting of teeth
c. Causes sleeping habits
d. Results in neoplasms of TMJ
46. The effective focal spot is
a. Smaller than the actual focal spot
b. Usually square in shape
c. Circular with a 2.75 inch diameter
d. Larger than the actual focal spot
47. Which of the following helminthic disease is transmitted by direct skin penetration by the larva?
a. Filariasis b. Onchocercasis
c. Dracunculosis d. Schistosomiasis
48. Intraoral radiographs of a young patient revealed a smoothly outlined 2 cm radiolucent area in the mandibular molar region. the radiolucency scalloped between the roots of the vital molars. The most likely diagnosis is a
a. Solitary bone cyst b. Static bone cavity
c. Normal maxillary sinus d. Dentigerous cyst
49. The denture - bearing area covering the incisive foramen
a. Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement of nasopalatine nerves and blood vessels
b. Should not be relieved routinely
c. Should be relieved routinely to prevent impingement on the mental nerve
d. Is surrounded by a sharp marrow annular ridge
50. After dentin and enamel formation have reached the
cementaoenamel junction, the cervical loop
a. Degenerates and disappears
b. Becomes transformed into epithelial sheath of Hertwing
c. Forms the membrana preformativa
d. Forms the cell – free zone
FOR ANSWERS CLICK ANSWERS BELOW
1. Ans: a.Glutamic acid, glycine and cysteine
Exp: Glutathione is a collective term to refer to the tripeptide Lgamma- glutamyl-L-cysteinylglycine in both its reduced and dimeric forms. Monomeric glutathione is also known as reduced glutathione and its dimer is also known as oxidized glutathione, glutathione disulfide and diglutathione. Glutathinone is present in tissues in concentrations as high as one millimoloar. Glutathione is present in the diet in amounts usually less than 100 milligrams dailyGlutathione also plays roles in catalysis, metabolism, signal transduction, gene expression and apoptosis. It is a cofactor for glutathione S-transferases, enzymes which are involved in the detoxification of xenobiotics, including carcinogenic genotoxicants, and for the glutathione peroxidases, crucial selenium-containing antioxidant enzymes. The liver is the principal site of glutathione synthesis. The consequences of a functional glutathione deficiency, which results in tissue oxidative stress, can be seen in some pathological conditions. This condition is characterized by a hemolytic anemia. Chronic functional glutathione deficiency is also associated with immune disorders, an increased incidence of malignancies, and in the case of HIV disease, probably accelerated pathogenesis of the disease. Acute manifestations of functional glutathione deficiency can be seen in those who have taken an overdosage of acetaminophen. This results in depletion of glutathione in the hepatocytes, leading to liver failure and death, if not promptly treated. Glutathione is an orphan drug for the treatment of AIDS associated cachexia. Prodrugs of gamma-L-glutamyl-L-cysteine are being evaluated as anticataract agents. Glutathione has antioxidant, detoxification immunomodulatory, activities have beneficial effects on sperm motility and in the protection against noise-induced hearing loss
2. Ans: c. Posterior eccentric interferences are removed, resulting in less muscle stress
Exp: There is, however, a tendency to produce more horizontal chewing cycles, and therefore, wear on the teeth usually continues. To derive benefits from occlusal equilibration, the anterior teeth as well as the posterior teeth should make anterior teeth as well as the posterior teeth should make simultaneous contact with the opposing teeth when the condyles are in centric position.
3. Ans: b. Middle meningeal
Exp: The third or pterygopalatine portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation with the pterygopalatine ganglion. The middle meningeal artery is typically the first branch of the first part (retromandibular part) of the maxillary artery; one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery Branches include:
· Sphenopalatine artery, terminal branch
· Descending palatine artery
· Infraorbital artery
· Posterior superior alveolar artery Pharyngeal artery
· Artery of pterygoid canal
4. Ans: a. Phagocytic capacity
Exp: NBT NBT-Nitro-blue Tetrazolium Test/ NBT Test/ Tertazolium Reduction Test Physiology NBT test is used mainly for the diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease; an X linked inherited disease, characterized by disabled phagocyte NADPH oxidase with inability to efficiently kill phagocytized bacteria. The CGD may result from genetic defects in atleast four different components of the multicompotent NADPH oxidase system.
2% to 8% segmented neutrophils reduce dye. Normal Range
5. Ans: b. Blood viscosity Hematosis is: is:-
· formation of blood cells in the living body (especially in the bone marrow)
· the conversion of chyle into blood.
· The arterialization of the blood in the lungs; the formation of blood in general
· Conversion of the venous blood in arterial that takes place during the respiratory process
Exp: The effectiveness of the hematosis strongly is also bound to which ventilation is known like relation perfusión, this is the relation between the air volume that circulate around the alveoli and the amount of blood that circulates around the pulmonary capillaries. This relation is also altered in certain diseases and by the corporal shifts of position, which explains so that some respiratory diseases worsen when placing to the patient in dorsal position (recostado on the back) and improve when placing the patient On guard seated
6. Ans: a. Alveolar osteitis
Exp: This condition, also known as dry socket, results when a normal clot fails to form in the socket of a recently extracted tooth. Since this condition is usually very painful, always consider it a serious emergency.
SYMPTOMS—A patient presenting with a dry socket will usually have a history of extrac- tion within 5 days; a complaint of excruciating, constant pain; and the loss of a blood clot or the failure of a clot to form. SIGNS—Upon examination, you will prob- ably note the absence of a blood clot in the socket of a recently extracted tooth; however, the socket may contain food debris. Alveolar bone may be visible in the socket, and you may smell foul breath. The patient’s temperature is probably elevated.
TREATMENT—Gently rinse the socket with warm and press the gauze between two dry gauze pads to remove excess moisture. Place a strip of surgical gauze loosely in the socket. Do not exert pressure on the socket when placing the strip. Have the patient return daily. Clean the socket and change the dressing until the condition is corrected
7. Ans:c. Minor connector
Exp: The connecting link (tang) between the major connector or base of a partial denture and other units of the prosthesis such as clasps, indirect retainers, and occlusal rests
8. Ans: b. Bulbar palsy
Exp: He is suffering from progressive bulbar palsy Bulbar palsy is a collection of signs and symptoms (that is, a syndrome) which may be associated with a particular disease. Bulbar palsy can be a part of ALS, stroke, inflammatory diseases, etc. Bulbar refers to the lower brainstem, which is the control center for the cranial nerves 7-12. Palsy mean weakness. That is, if muscles controlled by cranial nerves 7-12 are weak, then you talk about a bulbar palsy.Symptoms include trouble speaking, swallowing, coughing, using the tongue, and some trouble with facial expression. Bulbar palsy is when the signs point directly to brainstem or lower cranial nerve damage. Pseudobulbar palsy results when the connections from the cerebral cortex (above) are disrupted, so the voluntary control is non functioning but there is no intrinsic damage to the brainstem or cranial nerves themselves. Pseudobulbar palsy is seen in certain cases involving strokes on both hemispheres of the brain, and in certain degenerative disorders. Bulbar Palsy is an assortment of signs and symptoms, not the name of a precise disease.
9. Ans: d. None of the a above bove
Exp: Bacterial conlonization of the pulp is from the blood stream and usually happens in intact teeth.
10. Ans: b. Mercury drop
Exp: Bordetella is a genus of small (0.2 - 0.7 µm), Gram-negative coccobacilli of the phylum proteobacteria. Bordetella species, with the exception of B. petrii, are obligate aerobes as well as highly fastidious. Three species are human pathogens (B. pertussis, B. parapertussis, B. bronchiseptica); one of these (B. bronchiseptica) is also motile. The Bordetella genus is named after Jules Bordet. Identification of Bordetella pertussis Charcoal blood agar plates are examined daily for 7 days for the appearance of typical growth. At 48 hrs colonies are minute, convex , shiny, silver colonies – said to resemble a “ drop of mercury”. As colonies age they become whiter with the appearance of a “bisected pearl”.
11. Ans: a. Craniofacial dysostosis
Exp: craniofacial dysostosis, also called Crouzon syndrome, is one of a large group of birth defects in which there is abnormal fusion (joining between some of the bones of the skull and of the face). This fusion does not allow the bones to grow normally, affecting the shape of the head, appearance of the face and the relationship of the teeth. Crouzon was a doctor who described a patient with a characteristic group of deformities (syndrome) which were then observed in other individuals.
12. Ans: b. Amphoterecin B Because of coexisting candida infection.
Exp: Lichen planus is a disorder of the skin and mucous membranes resulting in inflammation, itching, and distinctive skin lesions. The disorder has been known to develop after exposure to potential allergens such as medications, dyes, and other chemical substances. Symptoms are increased with emotional stress, possibly because of changes in immune system during stress. Lichen planus may be associated with several other disorders, most notably hepatitis C. Symptoms Itching in the location of a lesion, mild to severe
· Skin lesion:
· Usually located on the inner areas of the wrist, legs, torso, or genitals
· Generalized, with symmetric appearance
· Single lesion or clusters of lesions, often at sites of skin trauma
· Papule of 2 - 4 cm size
· Papules clustered into a plaque or large, flat-topped lesion
· Distinct, sharp borders to lesions
· Possibly covered with fine white streaks or linear scratch marks called Wickham's striae Shiny or scaly appearance
· Color dark -- reddish-purple (skin) or gray-white (mouth)
· Possibility of developing blisters or ulcers
· Ridges in the nails (nail abnormalities
· Dry mouth
· Metallic taste in the mout
· Mouth lesions
· Tender or painful (mild cases may have no discomfort)
· Located on the sides of the tongue or the inside of the cheek
· Occasionally located on the gums Poorly defined area of blue-white spots or "pimples"
· Linear lesions forming a lacy-appearing network of lesions
· Gradual increase in size of affected area Lesions occasionally erode to form painful ulcers
· Hair loss
· Topical antimycotics (eg, nystatin, amphotericin) must be prescribed
· If you have mouth lesions, lidocaine mouth washes may numbthe area temporarily and make eating more comfortable.
· Topical corticosteroids (such as triamcinolone acetonide cream) or oral corticosteroids (such as prednisone) may be prescribed to reduce inflammation and suppress immune responses. Corticosteroids may be injected directly into a lesion.
· Topical retinoic acid cream (a form of vitamin A) and other ointments or creams may reduce itching and inflammation and may aid healing. Occlusive dressings may be placed over topical medications to protect the skin from scratching.
· Ultraviolet light therapy may be beneficial in some cases.
13. Ans: a. Clostridia
EXP: Endospores are bacterial structures (resting cells) formed by a few groups of bacteria as intracellular structures, but ultimately they are released as free endospores. Biologically, endospores are a fascinating type of cell. Endospores exhibit no signs of life, being described as cryptobiotic. They are highly resistant to environmental stresses such as high temperature (some endospores can be boiled for hours and retain their viability), irradiation, strong acids, disinfectants, etc. They are probably the most durable cell produced in nature. Although cryptobiotic, they retain viability indefinitely such that under appropriate environmental conditions, they germinate back into vegetative cells. Endospores are formed by two genera of Gram Gram-positive bacteria: Bacillus, the aerobic sporeformers, and Clostridium, the anaerobic sporeformers sporeformers. Both genera contain pathogens, and the endospores produced by these bacteria invariably play some role in the toxicity, transmission or survival of the pathogen.
14. Ans: b. Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis
Exp: Disease which is not associated with enlargement of jaw bones is Focal chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis because Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is a periapical lesion that involves reactive osteogenesis evoked by chronic inflammation of the dental pulp. In most cases, this lesion develops in the mandibular molar region in response to a low-grade infection of the pulp that results from a deep carious lesion.
15. Ans: b. Micorabscesses
Exp: Micorabscesses is a definite sign that irreversible pulpitis has set in, necrosis occurs at a chronic stage, wheat sheaf appearance is due to improper fixing of the pulpal tissue
16. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: A bridge is contra indicated when cannot be constructed so as to restore arch form and occlusion. When the proposed abutments have exposed root areas that are sensitive and cannot be covered by bridge retainers, the construction of a bridge is contraindicated.
17. Ans : c. Type 111 .
Exp: Brandywine type
18. Ans: c. hemoglobinuria the presence of RBC in urine
Exp: hemoglobinuria( presence of hemoglobin in the urine) is a condition in which the oxygen transport protein hemoglobin is found in abnormally high concentrations in the urine. The condition is often associated with hemolytic anemia, in which red blood cells are destroyed, thereby increasing levels of free plasma hemoglobin. The excess hemoglobin is filtered by the kidneys, which release it into the urine, giving urine a red colour
19. Ans: a. Lips
Exp: Since they usually do not smoke and also they areprotected from sunlight by applications of lipsticks.
20. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: The intangibles may be defined as an appreciation of the following: forces developed by the oral mechanism, the capability of the tooth and its supporting structures to resist them, modifications of a normal tooth form that are designed to reduced forces or increase resistance to them, and establishing and maintaining normal tissue.
21. Ans: b. Middle third face
Exp: Basal-cell carcinoma most commonly occurs in men in the fifth to seventh decades of life. The area of the lesion is usually one that has frequent exposure to the sun: the middle third of the face and upper lip.
22. Ans: a. When a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
6Exp: Fused porcelain is recognized as a restorative material that is compatible with oral soft tissues plus it has superior esthetic qualities. With the use of albuminous porcelains the strength has been increased and the incidence of porcelain fractures has been reduced greater. Crowns constructed albuminous porcelain cores or occluding surfaces are incapable of replacing veneered crowns in advanced situations.
23. Ans: c. Erosion of teeth.
Exp: Because of hyperacidity and chronic vomiting
24. Ans: c. Fracture middle cranial fossa.
's sign, also mastoid ecchymosis ecchymosis, is an indication of fracture of the base of the posterior portion of the skull and may suggest underlying brain trauma. It consists of bruising immediately behind the ears. Another common bruising sign of a skull injury is raccoon eyes, the purplish discoloration around the eyes following fracture of the frontal portion of the skull base. This sign is named after William Henry Battle. Battle
25. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: And even if, the blood volume is constant, and blood loss is absent any case of anemia can only be explained by decreased production of erythroid precursors or increased destruction. Both processes seem to be operating in renal failure.
26. Ans: b. When iridioplatium wire in the form of a staple is used for reinforcement
Exp: The full veneer crown may be placed on any tooth that cannot be returned by alternate methods to an effective bridge abutment when the caries index, torque, leverage, or load contraindicates the partial veneer crown, the pinledge, or the inlay.
27. Ans: d. Fixed partial denture, rem .removable partial denture, ovable complete denture
Exp: After a thorough analysis of the patients problem the form of the appliance is considered. The appliance must correct the problem. The analytical process should show the directions and the distances sought in any tooth movements. The limiting factors include those inherent in the appliance, the patient, and the operator.
28. Ans: b. Patient with acute respiratory infection
Exp: Indications and Contraindications for the Use of General Anesthesia and Sedation in Children, Adults, and the Geriatric Population The decision to use a particular technique in a certain age group is based on the following: Adults General anesthesia for healthy (ASA class I or II) patients may be indicated when there is greater complexity of the procedure, higher levels of preoperative anxiety, or a greater need for a painfree operative period. A contraindication to local anesthesia might also require that a general anesthetic be administered. General anesthesia is contraindicated in patients who are not healthy (ASA class III or IV) for example any acute respiratory infection Geriatric Patients The indications for use of sedation or general anesthesia for the geriatric patient are basically the same as for other adults. Contraindica Contraindications tions to the use of sedation or general anesthesia for older patients are based almost entirely on the nature and severity of such risk factors Pediatric Patients The dentist's need for a cooperative and quiescent patient for the rendering of high-quality care is a prime indication for the use of sedation or general anesthesia in some children. These modalities tend to reduce fear and anxiety and assist the uncooperative child to accept and continue to receive regular dental care. Pediatric patients with extensive and complicated treatment needs, with acute pain and/or trauma, as well as those who are physically disabled or mentally retarded, may require sedation or general anesthesia. At times, the very young child (up to 3 years of age) and those with limited or compromised ability to comprehend and communicate also are candidates for such procedures. Additionally, there may be an indication for sedation or general anesthesia when the child would be better served by increasing the length of the appointment time and thus reducing the number of visits to accomplish the required treatment. Although the presence of a severe, compromising medical condition is generally a contraindication to sedation, some patients in this category may benefit from its use. These children should be managed in close cooperation with the physician involved in their medical care. While not necessarily contraindicated in the dental office, general anesthesia in the very young child often is best managed in the hospital or a similar setting, especially for lengthy restorative procedures. In all children, severe, compromising medical conditions contraindicate general anesthesia in the dental office.
29. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: When carving in inlay pattern directly, the operator muses a circular matrix band fitted loosely around the tooth, the band being trimmed both occlusally and cervically to accommodate the opposing cusps and avoid cutting the soft tissues.
30. Ans: d. Cleft palate
Exp: Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the connective tissue characterized by disproportionately long limbs, long thin fingers, a typically tall stature, and a predisposition to cardiovascular abnormalities, specifically those affecting the heart valves and aorta. The disorder may also affect numerous other structures and organs — including the lungs, eyes, dural sac surrounding the spinal cord, and hard palate.
31. Ans: d. All of the above.
Exp: The requirements for the ideal denture base include the following: accuracy of adaptation to the tissues, with low volume change; dense, nonirritating surface that is capable of receiving and maintaining a good finish: thermal conductivity; low specific gravity; lightness in the mouth; sufficient strength; resistance to fracture or distortion; self – cleansing factor or easily kept clean; esthetic acceptability; potential for future relining; low interest cost.
32. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: It is through the rigidity of the major connector that all other component parts of the partial denture may be effective. The major connectors must be located in favorable relation to moving tissues and must avoid impingement of gingival tissues
33. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: The objectives of a complete intra oral roentgenographic examination are to locate areas of infection and pathology; to reveal the presence of root fragments, foreign objects, bone spicules, and irregular ridge formations; to reveal the presence and extent of caries and the relation of the carious lesion to the pulp; to permit evaluation of existing restorations as to evidence of recurrent caries, marginal leakage, and overhanging gingival margins, to reveal the presence of root canal fillings; to evaluate periodontal conditions present and to establish the need and possibilities for treatment; and to evaluate the alveolar support of abutment teeth.
34. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: Elastic materials are the only ones that can be withdrawn from tooth and tissue undercuts without permanent deformation and the only impression materials suitable for impressions of irregular contours of oral tissues. the elastic materials are most commonly used fro the making of impression for partial dentures.
35. Ans: b. By placing occlusal area . areas close to their support
Exp: Overdentures appear to exhibit better retention than complete dentures. The tooth roots offer more discrete discriminatory input than the oral mucosa. Therefore, the periodontal ligament plays a role in the efficiency of muscular activity during chewing in patient wearing over dentures.
36. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: Therapeutic occlusion is one produced by the dentist whichconforms to the physiologic needs of the patient. A therapeutic occlusion is a well balanced and stable occlusion but is not an ideal occlusion.
37. Ans: c. Endocrine disturbance
Exp: Most complete denture problems are related to depleted bone support, which is generally accompanied by friable mucosa and altered neuromuscular control
38. Ans: d. Produces an artificial appearance to the dentures.
Exp: The positions of the teeth in a full denture bear a direct relationship to abuse of the denture- supporting tissues because the tooth positions have a direct effect on the stability of the denture during function
39. Ans: d. Adulthood .
Exp: Usually when the deciduous teeth erupt, they colonise and then increase in number.
40. Ans: d. They are all of the above
Exp: Glycerol either derivates of lecithin (phosphatidylcholine)are widely distributed in animal tissues. The glycerol either derivatives occur in erythrocytes and bone marrow
41. Ans: d. All of the above
Exp: Numerous factors regulate the rates of fatty acid synthesis, the conversion of excess carbohydrate to fatty acids, and the storage of lipid. The initial entry of glucose (dietary carbohydrate) into the cells is dependent upon the action of insulin which controls the availability of excess carbohydrate for glycogen synthesis. A key enzyme for regulating the rates of fatty and degradation and synthesis is isocitrate dehydrogenase of the citric acid cycle.
42. Ans: d. Disturbances in oral physiology
Exp: Proteins are large, complex, colloidal molecules formed form simple units (amino acids), are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents; contain or combined with one or more fatty acids; and include only compounds utilizable by or occurring in biological systems
43. Ans: d. The coronoid process
Exp: The crest mesenchymal cells of the visceral arches give rise to skeletal components such as the temporary visceral arch cartilages (Meckel’ s cartilage), middle ear cartilage, and mandibular bones
44. Ans: d. None of the above.
Exp: The hydrogen ion concentration of gastric juice is 106 times greater than that of plasma. Secretion of 1 liter of gastric juice requires he expenditure of at least 1500 calories if the process were 100% efficient (assuming plasma to be the source of hydrogen ions)
45. Ans: a. May result in muscular im . imbalance, trismus, and balance, pain
Exp: Occlusal harmony in complete denture is necessary if the dentures are to be comfortable, to function efficiently, and to preserve the supporting structures. It is difficult to find occlusal discrepancies intraorally with complete dentures
46. Ans: a. Smaller than the actual focal spot
Exp: the projected focal spot area, as seen from the centre of the X-ray field. In most X-ray tubes, the anode surface is placed at an angle to the central beam of the X-ray field, typically 8 to 17 degrees, depending on the application. The actual focal spot on the anode surface is elongated. However, it is projected as a square in the central part of the radiation field. The (virtual) size of this projected focal spot is called the effective focal spot.
47. Ans: d. Schistosomiasis
Exp: Schistosoma infections are contracted through contact with contaminated water. The parasite in its infective stages is called a cercaria. It swims freely in open bodies of water. On contact with humans, the parasite burrows into the skin, matures into another larval stage (schistosomula), then migrates to the lungs and liver (where it matures into the adult form). The adult worm then migrates to the anatomic area of its preference, depending on which species is involved. Likely areas include the bladder, rectum, intestines, liver, portal venous system, spleen, and lungs.
48. Ans: a. Solitary bone cyst
49. Ans: b. Should not be reliev relieved routinely ed
Exp: The anterior sulcus extension begins from slightly anterior to the mental foramen to the same relative position on the opposite side of the arch. Surgical correction of the denture – bearing area is accomplished by the following: the anterior sulcus slide and the reverse anterior sulcus slide, the mucosal graft.
50. Ans: b. Becomes transformed into epithelial sheath of Hertwing
Exp: The cervical loop is located at the border of the wide basal opening of the enamel organ, where the inner enamel epithelium reflects onto the outer enamel epithelium. When the crown of the tooth has been formed, the cells of the cervical loop give rise to Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
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